Evolutionarily, why does paedophilia exist?

First, and it genuinely saddens me that I have to even say this, but, alas, there a people in this world who do destroy children's lives when they partake in sexual activity with them against their will: I am not in any way whatsoever advocating for or speaking out in support of pedophilia of any kind at any time towards any child. I am principally asking this question because a) I have a deep, deep fascination with evolution and how non-heterosexual and non-teleiophilic and otherwise atypical sexual, gender, etc., expressions exist, function and the like according to human evolution, and b) because I got such an amazing list of comments from people about [my post on the evolutionary function of homosexuality and other LGBTQ+-related practices, desires, etc] (https://www.reddit.com/r/evolution/comments/e81c9d/what_function_does_homosexuality_evolutionary/?).

I fully appreciate that this topic is very controversial and thorny, so I ask this question with the greatest amount of respect possible, as I understand that for some people it may be very, very triggering to read and come across.

Frankly, I can now see thanks to all of you giving me great responses, etc., to my question on LGBTQ+-related things how evolution and LGBTQ+ things can and do work with evolution, but with pedophilia I really am just baffled, as unlike LGBTQ+ people who may end up raising young or something similar when a child(s) parent(s) die or something, I can't see where this possibly comes in.

By definition a paedophile is one who is sexually attracted to prepubescent individuals. If this definition is correct, and I believe it is, then since no typical prepubescent person, as far as I am aware, can ever procreate wherever does pedophilia come into the equation? Why does it exist? How does an older person, generally an adult, but I suppose any pubescent or postpubescent person, having sex with or desiring prepubescent individuals serve evolution in any way whatsoever? The typical prepubescent individual with a penis cannot produce sperm, so they cannot possibly create any new human life through sexual reproduction with a person with a vagina. Likewise, no typical prepubescent person with a vagina can get impregnated and thus give birth to any child if they mate with a person with a penis, so I really do fail to see how pedophilia came about in humankind's evolutionary history, and, moreover, I fail to see why pedophilic attraction could even possibly be evolutionarily advantageous to anyone in evolutionary terms for many reasons.

I wish to say as a very last note that my understanding of evolution, human evolution in our case, is that just because something exists amongst humankind does not mean that it is a) good, or b) advantageous to the modern human being. What I do believe it does mean, however, is that the human being may have benefited from certain things in the past. That is my lay understanding, so is someone could enlighten me on anything to do with this last note then it'd be most appreciated.

I wish to say that I apologize once again in advance for any replies that are not too immediate - and, yes, I do promise that I will respond to responders on my post on homosexuality and other LGBTQ+-related things in an evolutionary context, but I haven't had the chance to thus far as I have been doing a ton of research.